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Don't Understand This Statement


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I copied the following quote from the DINET entry on sweat testing. My doctor wants me to do a TST and QSART. I'm not wanting to do the TST for 1000 reasons. But if I could better understand what these words mean, perhaps I could be more willing...

"Used in conjunction with the thermoregulatory sweat test, QSART can differentiate a pre- from postganglionic lesion (Low, 2003, 407-421)." (DINET).

What does this differentiation tell us? What would we do with that information?

Thanks for your help - as always, you are all wonderful!


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I am not exactly sure what they are meaning without looking more into it. I am thinking that they are trying to determine the extent and/or origination of the neuropathy. Like if it is originating from the spinal cord or after the spinal cord (more peripheral). The ganglion is a mass of cells just outside the spinal cord at each nerve root level. It is made up of multiple nerves, the nerve going from spinal cord to the ganglion is the pre-ganglionic fiber and the one from the ganglion to peripheral nerves is the post-ganglionic fiber.

Not sure if that helps? I am not sure what he study says about how one helps differentiate what problem it is, and how that may change treatment?

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